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To clarify, my "obvious" comment referred to the people who lived in the 1700's. I shall have to examine your claim that "All of President Washington's non-religious proclamations contain statements...regarding its source(s) of authority" as I get the opportunity. Regardless, that point seems a bit of a Red Herring, because if Washington purposely abstained from establishing constitutional authority for his Thanksgiving proclamation, he must have had some reason other than ignorance, which was your original claim. Either he is malicious, trampling constitutional authority, or he sees no practical benefit in justifying his religious proclamations according to their constitutional authority. After all, which is more awe inspiring: that God graciously established this nation against innumerable odds, or that the constitution grants us authority to hold national days of thanksgiving, so by golly we're gonna do it! I know Washington was a bit stuffy at times, but he wasn't that unromantic.
Thanks for correcting my facts on the constitutional convention, FredFlash. I had forgotten about the interim period between the constitution and the Bill of Rights. However, I still don't see how Washington could be ignorant of the ideas behind the Bill of Rights, especially as his role of US president required him to send the final copy out to the states for ratification.
I do not have a copy of Original Intent (I left it at school), but I don't very much like the nature of your challenge, namely, because many of the points Barton makes are plainly evident from the source material he prints. One is the religious nature of the majority of the founding fathers, who were by today's standards, quite frankly, proverbial 'Jesus Freaks.' He lists not only quotes, but actions taken by these men. Whatever possibility quotation leaves for manipulating context, plain statements like "so and so founded this bible society" are free from this danger. One of his claims that are more relevant to this discussion is that the people who were instrumental in the formation of the Bill of Rights, and who are often quoted today as having supported separation of Church and State, showed no such principle in their own political actions. For example, why would Jefferson allocate federal funding to send Christian missionaries to the "Indians" (Native Americans) during his presidency if he believed that to be the role of independent religious societies?
Now as for the theological dimension of your argument, I think you will have to elaborate on your interpretation of Mathew's gospel if we are to have any intelligent debate (since you keep emphasizing that point). I haven't yet heard a sermon that explained Jesus' teaching to "Render unto Caesar what is Caesar's and to God what is God's" as the divine origin of separation of Church and State doctrine. Do you think it means that God has relegated ownership of a certain portion of the earth to the governing bodies? It was David's understanding that "the earth is the Lord's, and all it contains, the world, and those who dwell in it" (Ps 24:1 NAS). Humanity, both mighty and meek, are merely stewards of everything under our control. Nebuchadnezzar learned this lesson the hard way.
I also wonder, how are we to obey the two greatest commandments, to love God with all of our heart, soul, mind, and strength (by Mark's reckoning) and to love our neighbor as ourselves, which includes acting as if we do, if we are supposed to put our Christianity on a shelf when we show up for work at a federally funded institution? Jesus didn't teach his disciples to be Sunday Christians.
Finally, if the verse in question was instructing governing officials, why was it directed to commoners, that is, those who pay taxes?
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